NHS crack down on Free Prescriptions (England only)

[topman]

Originally Posted by bendrick

And when mentioning funding it is of course worth pointing out that Wales has a massive amount more of elderly people than the other 3 home countries per hundred thousand of population ( official figures) which puts a much greater strain on our NHS.

Nobody retires to a holdiay cottage in Birmingham after a lifetimes work do they? They all head for Wales? These huge numbers of English pensioners add a disproportionate cost to the Welsh Health service.

Interesting. I honestly didn't know that.

[topman]

Originally Posted by Darcydog

Many thanks - a very recent development that could possibly go some way to redress the unfairness of the Barnett Formula.

But this does not apply to Wales - as far as I am aware!

I take it the aforementioned formula is the root cause of your interest in this issue?

No it does not.

[Darcydog]

Originally Posted by topman

Better transport would be the most obvious, not quite as easy to quantify but still an obvious benefit.

Really? - what about the congestion zone?

Also - a report in The Guardian from 6th July 2016 that refers to the report on Tax Revenues by region and City states that London “pays almost a third of all U.K. tax”.

And that London alone generated almost as much tax as the next 37 largest Cities combined

Which is all well and good if you live and work in London. I don’t and I never did.

I live in a rural area that is remarkably similar to where my wife’s family (on her fathers side) came from in Wales. Not so hilly admitted

[Darcydog]

Originally Posted by topman

I take it the aforementioned formula is the root cause of your interest in this issue?

No it does not.

No - may I refer you to my OP

Specifically- why is it that avoiding paying a Rx charge has become a criminal offence in England when the “crime” itself cannot exist in the other three nations?

All the spin, word wooze and righteous indignation seen thus far by the easily offended - has not yet answered this point.

But I grant you - the transport infrastructure IS better in London.....

[topman]

Originally Posted by Darcydog

Really? - what about the congestion zone?

Also - a report in The Guardian from 6th July 2016 that refers to the report on Tax Revenues by region and City states that London “pays almost a third of all U.K. tax”.

And that London alone generated almost as much tax as the next 37 largest Cities combined

Which is all well and good if you live and work in London. I don’t and I never did.

I live in a rural area that is remarkably similar to where my wife’s family (on her fathers side) came from in Wales. Not so hilly admitted

Public transport absolutely yes.

I'm not sure your point . You only want regions to have what they 'raise' in taxes?

[Darcydog]

Originally Posted by topman

Public transport absolutely yes.

I'm not sure your point . You only want regions to have what they 'raise' in taxes?

As someone living in a rural area that suffers hugely from “rural crime” and where we don’t seem to see a policeman from one year to the next - I am not alone in questioning why it is that for every £1 we ALL each pay in taxes - we in England receive LESS than a £1 back - but the other Nations receive considerably more.

One “advantage” of this discrepancy is Free Rx’s in the Nations that receive more than they contribute and a Rx charge in the one Nation that receives less back than it contributes.

[topman]

Originally Posted by Darcydog

I am not alone in questioning why it is that for every £1 we ALL each pay in taxes - we in England receive LESS than a £1 back - but the other Nations receive considerably more.

Ah, now we're getting somewhere. why do think the funding is the way it and has been for sometime?

[Darcydog]

Originally Posted by topman

Ah, now we're getting somewhere. why do think the funding is the way it and has been for sometime?

Well it was set up years ago by Barnett (an economist) but even he has said for years that it was only meant to be a temporary measure, has no basis in U.K. Law and is now demonstrably unfair.

Edit - in fact Barnett has gone on record to say that continued use of his temporary formula is a “Terrible Mistake”.

But I fail to see how this last point “ is getting somewhere” - because all it does is set up a strawman argument in your rather desperate bid to avoid the question I have posed all along.

Namely - is it fair that someone, like our friend recovering from an op on one side of a border in the U.K. and as part of her recovery requires three items on a monthly Rx has to pay nearly £25 every 28 days whereas someone treated for the same on the other side of a U.K. border pays nothing?

Further to this - is it fair that avoiding paying in England is a criminal offence when that offence cannot exist in the other three nations?

Please spare us anymore Strawman!!

I have tried to answer with good humour all the questions posed.

Now please grant me the curtesy of a specific answer to the above.

Is it fair?

[topman]

Originally Posted by Darcydog

Well it was set up years ago by Barnett (an economist) but even he has said for years that it was only meant to be a temporary measure, has no basis in U.K. Law and is now demonstrably unfair.

But I fail to see how this last point “ is getting somewhere” - because all it does is set up a strawman argument in your rather desperate bid to avoid the question I have posed all along.

Namely - is it fair that someone, like our friend recovering from an op on one side of a border in the U.K. and as part of her recovery requires three items on a monthly Rx has to pay nearly £25 every 28 days whereas someone treated for the same on the other side of a U.K. border pays nothing?

Further to this - is it fair that avoiding paying in England is a criminal offence when that offence cannot exist in the other three nations?

Please spare us anymore Strawman!!

I have tried to answer with good humour all the questions posed.

Now please grant me the curtesy of a specific answer to the above.

Is it fair?

It's not really a strawman at all. It just part of the reasons behind it the topic you brought up. It's all part of the context of your question. To try to your answer your question, you must look as to why and how it came about. That's what I was getting at, I'm sorry you couldn't see that.

Your friends bill is £9.xx a month with PPC.

To answer your question, it's not really an issue to me that there are different rules around prescription payment in one part of the UK to another.

[Darcydog]

Originally Posted by topman

It's not really a strawman at all. It just part of the reasons behind it the topic you brought up. It's all part of the context of your question. To try to your answer your question, you must look as to why and how it came about. That's what I was getting at, I'm sorry you couldn't see that.

Your friends bill is £9.xx a month with PPC.

To answer your question, it's not really an issue to me that there are different rules around prescription payment in one part of the UK to another.

Ok - so it came about because England gets access to less tax resources per capita than other Nations due to a non legal much criticised formula devised as a short term measure but due to political expediency has continued for decades despite the fact that even the bloke who devised said formula has stated on record that its continued use is a “Terrible Mistake”.

Part of the reason it is a “Terrible Mistake” is that he now recognised that continued use of his formula outside of the parameters for which it was originally designed leads to unfairness.

Rx charges for one nation and not the others is just one example of such unfairness.

But please do not think that I want a re introduction of Rx charges where there are none at the moment!

As I have repeatedly said - I want Rx charges abolished in England to give us all a level playing field across our so called “United(?) Kingdom”